On Tue, 2004-07-13 at 10:22 +0100, Samuel Liddicott wrote:
What if the employee doing the code was empoyed by the group and not one of the group companies?
It may depend on local country law, but I don't think this is possible.
Does collaboration (say cvs) between developers at different companies of the same group count as distribution?
Probably so, but it would only grant the rights to who got the code. Not to everybody.
This is significant as cvs distributions are based on patches and diff's? If ed diff's are used it may be possible to collaborate without transmitting any of the original code; so this collaboration arbuably would not constitute a distribution; but its just a special form of the question: can I distribute a non-GPL patch script to a GPL product?
As long as the resulting product is GPL'ed... which would the non-GPL patch rather pointless, I guess.
If company A buys company B (on paper) and then after merging some computer systems immediatly sells company B would this count as a distribution?
I don't think it would make sense.
Yeah, I am taking things to desperate limits, but desperate times may call for desperate measures; one day something like this may happen?
I saw nothing of desperate in there, unlike the tactics to promote the DMCA and EUCD.
I would like to know what "distribution" means.
I think you're raising a storm on a glass of water.
Rui